Day 43- 29 Dec - UPSC Prelim English Quiz Solution

Day 43- 29 Dec - UPSC Prelim English Quiz Solution

Based on UPSC Syllabus and Current Affairs

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Q 1. Consider the following statements about aggressive species (invasive Species)

1. The species of plants/animals/fungi spread very slowly.

2. These species endanger the ecosystem.

3. These species are foreign origin or non-native.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 2 and 3 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution:   a Explaination   
These plants/fungus/beasts/microbes spread very rapidly and harm other species. Occasionally these species spread so much that it proves to be completely destructive for other ecosystems. They are from outside or non-native and enter new ecosystem and begin to destroy them.

Q 2. Which of the following types of forests are found mainly in the Himalaya range?

1. Decay Forest

2. Tropical prickly forests

3. Temperate Forest

Choose the correct answer using the code given below

a) 3 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 2 and 3 only
Solution:   b Explaination   

Tropical prickly forests are found in semi-arid areas of Southwest Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh. Hence, option 2 is not correct.

Q 3. Regarding the GGD green good karma campaign, consider the following statements:

1. The campaign loueds small positive actions by individuals or organizations to strengthen the cause of environmental protection.

2. Various activities covered under GGD such as cleaning campaign within the school campus, waste separation of biodegradable and non-biodegradable, paper re-cycling and tree plantation drives etc. are being implemented by the students throughout the country.

3. The purpose of the campaign is to broaden its base with the participation of teachers, students and other voluntary organizations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution:   d Explaination   

Q 4. With reference to the recently released Composite Water Management Index, consider the following statements:

1. It aims to establish a clear baseline and benchmark for state-level performance on key water indicators.

2. It is released by NITI Aayog.

3. In 2018, North Eastern and Himalayan states are the top performers on the index.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution:   a   

Objectives of Index is "Establish a clear baseline and benchmark for state-level performance on key water indicators." Hence statement 1 is correct

The National Institute for Transforming India (NITI) Aayog has developed the Composite Water Management Index (CWMI) to enable effective water management in Indian states in the face of this growing crisis. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Most ‘Himalayan & NE states’ are the lowest performers on the Index, possibly due to a combination of high water availability, which reduces the imminence for water management and policy action. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Q 5. Recently, the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change has embarked upon a programme for Blue flag certification for beaches in India. In the light of this development, consider the following statements:

1. Blue Flag certification is given to certify least tsunami prone beaches in India.

2. The certification is granted by United Nations Environment Programme.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution:   d Explaination   

Society of Integrated Coastal Management (SICOM) under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change has embarked upon a programme for Blue flag certification of one Blue Flag beach in each of the 13 coastal States /UTs under the World Bank-assisted Integrated Coastal Zone Management Project (ICZMP).

A world-renowned eco-label trusted by millions around the globe, the Blue Flag programme is operated under the auspices of the Foundation for Environmental Education and is headquartered in Copenhagen, Denmark. In order to qualify for this prestigious award, a series of stringent environmental, educational, safety-related and access-related criteria must be met and maintained.

Q 6. With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:

1. Members other than ministers can also introduce bills.

2. Bills can be introduced only about matters contained in the Union List.

3. All bills are drafted by the Parliamentary committees.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 3 only
Solution:   a   

Statement 1 is correct: The substance and even the timing of the bill are decided by the Cabinet. No major bill is introduced in the Parliament without the approval of the Cabinet. Members other than ministers can also introduce bills but these have no chance of being passed without the support of the government. The drafting of such bills is the responsibility of the members concerned.

Statement 2 and 3 are not correct: The Parliament enacts legislations for the country. In the normal course, bills can be introduced on matters contained in the Union List and in the Concurrent List. Despite being the chief law making body, the Parliament often merely approves legislations. The actual task of drafting the bill is performed by the bureaucracy under the supervision of the minister.

Q 7. Consider the following statements regarding National Emergency:

1. It can be declared on the ground of armed rebellion.

2. Declaration of a National Emergency is immune from judicial review.

3. The first proclamation of National Emergency was issued on account of Indo-Pakistan war in 1971.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 only
d) None of the above
Solution:   c   

Statement 1 correct: Originally, the Constitution mentioned ‘internal disturbance’ as the third ground for the proclamation of a National Emergency, but the expression was too vague and had a wider connotation. Hence, the 44th Amendment Act of 1978 substituted the words ‘armed rebellion’ for ‘internal disturbance’.Thus, it is no longer possible to declare a National Emergency on the ground of ‘internal disturbance’as was done in 1975 by the then ruling government under the Prime Ministership of Indira Gandhi.

Statement 2 not correct: The 38th Amendment Act of 1975 made the declaration of a National Emergency immune from the judicial review. But, this provision was subsequently deleted by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978. Further, in the Minerva Mills case, (1980), the Supreme Court held that the proclamation of a national emergency can be challenged in a court on the ground of malafide or that the declaration was based on wholly extraneous and irrelevant facts or is absurd or perverse.

Statement 3 is not correct: The first proclamation of National Emergency was issued in October 1962 on account of Chinese aggression in the NEFA (North-East Frontier Agency—now Arunachal Pradesh), and was in force till January 1968.

Q 8. In which of the following states was the world's first International Centre for Humanitarian Forensics launched recently?

a) Maharashtra
b) West Bengal
c) Tamil Nadu
d) Gujarat
Solution:   d   

The world's first International Centre for Humanitarian Forensics (ICHF) was recently launched in Gujarat, India by the Gujarat Forensic Sciences University (GFSU) in collaboration with the International Committee of the Red Cross (ICRC) Regional Delegation for India, Bhutan, Nepal and the Maldives. ICHF is the first definitive effort at institutionalising humanitarian forensic action within an existing university system.

The Centre will conduct various academic and professional programmes, training, research and provide technical expertise to support operations (together with authorities and agencies concerned) in the field of humanitarian forensics.